Sunni Sheikh: How is it possible that
during the time of the Holy Prophet a thing was so much spoken of and commonly
known to all, but after a period of thirty years, a contrary view gained
credence because of a false hadith?
Shia Cleric: This was not a unique
instance. Often what was accepted during the time of the Holy Prophet
completely changed its form after a few years because of a forged hadith. Other
religious orders and practices in force during the life of the Prophet were
abandoned after some years due to the influence of the people. Mut’ah marriage
and hajj Nisa were lawful up to Abu Bakr’s time but made unlawful by
‘Umar
Sunni Sheikh: Kindly cite one example of
such a change.
Shia Cleric: There are many examples; two
should suffice to make my point. I will discuss mut’ah (temporary marriage) and
hajj nisa. Both sects agree that these two practices were common during the
time of the Prophet. Moreover, they were practiced during Abu Bakr’s caliphate
and also during part of ‘Umar’s caliphate. But Caliph ‘Umar brought about a
complete reversal of the Qur’anic order.
He said, “Two mut’ahs were in effect during
the time of the Holy Prophet. I now decree both of them unlawful and will
punish those who engage in this practice.” What was made lawful by
Allah was suddenly abrogated. ‘Umar’s decree was so widely promulgated and so
blindly followed that the original law soon fell into oblivion. Even today many
of our Sunni brothers regard mut’ah as an innovation of the Shi’as. If ‘Umar’s
whim could overturn the clear ordinance of Allah and the historical fact that
mut’ah was practiced, can you doubt that Abu Talib’s well known belief could
also be denied?
Sunni Sheikh: Are you saying that millions
of Muslims have violated the injunctions of the Qur’an and the sunna of the
Prophet? Remember, the whole world calls us Sunnis, i.e., followers of the
sunna. The Shi’as are called Rafizis, i.e., those who stray from the sunna of
the Prophet. Sunnis are really rafizis and Shi’as are Sunni.
Shia Cleric: In reality the Shi’as are
Sunnis, that is, they follow the Holy Qur’an and the Sunna of the Holy Prophet.
You people are Rafizis because you violate the injunctions of the Holy Qur’an
and the commands of the Prophet.
Sunni
Sheikh: This is strange indeed! You have transformed millions of pure
Muslims into Rafizis! Can you advance any argument to support this?
Shia
Cleric: I have already told you that the Holy Prophet instructed us that
after him we should follow the Holy Qur’an and his progeny. But you people
deliberately abandoned the progeny of the Prophet and followed others. You
rejected the practices of the Holy Prophet. You left those people by order of
your two sheikhs and then call the real followers of the Sunna of the Holy
Prophet Rafizis.
Among such orders there is another explicit
injunction in the Holy Qur’an which says, “And know that whatever thing you gain, a
fifth of it is for Allah and for the Apostle and for the near of kin and the
orphans and the needy and the way fairer.” (8:41)
The Holy Prophet observed this order and gave
khums (1/5) of the wealth acquired from the enemy to his relatives and kinsmen.
But you people opposed this practice. The
practice of mut’ah is another case in point. It was in accordance with Allah’s
command. It was sanctioned by the Prophet and his companions. The practice
continued during Abu Bakr’s caliphate and also during a part of ‘Umar’s
caliphate. But at the command of ‘Umar you people have made unlawful what Allah
made lawful. Moreover, you have rejected the Sunna of the Holy Prophet. And yet
you call yourselves Sunnis and call us Rafizis.
Caliph
‘Umar himself did not advance any reason for his revoking the divine order. The
Sunni ulama’ have tried in vain to prove that Caliph ‘Umar’s decision was just.
Arguments for lawfulness of mut’ah
Sunni
Sheikh: Can you prove the lawfulness of mut’ah? Can you prove that Caliph
‘Umar violated the Qur’anic injunction and the Sunna of the Holy Prophet?
Shia
Cleric: The strongest proof is furnished by the Holy Qur’an. In the sura of
Nisa (The Women) Allah says: “…then as to those by whom you benefited (from mut’ah),
give them their dowries as appointed….” (4:24). Obviously the Holy
Qur’an’s command is obligatory forever unless it is abrogated by the Qur’an,
itself. Since it has not been abrogated, this command holds good forever.
Sunni
Sheikh: How is this verse not related to permanent wedlock? It is this same
verse that gives instruction about paying back dowry.
Shia
Cleric: You have confused the main
point. Your own prominent ulama’, like Tabari in his Tafsir al-Kabir, part V
and Imam Fakhru’d-din Razi in his Tafsir al-Mafatihu’l-Ghaib, part III, have
confirmed that this verse refers to mut’ah. Apart from the explicit
interpretation of your ulama’ and commentators, you are also aware that
throughout the entire sura of Nisa, several kinds of marriage and wedlock have
been mentioned: nika (permanent marriage), mut’ah (temporary marriage), and
marriage with mulk al-Yamin (servants).
For permanent marriage the Holy Qur’an says in
the sura of Nisa: “Then marry such women as seem good to you, two and three and
four; but if you fear that you will not do justice (between them), then only
one or what your right hands possess.” (4:3)
About Mulk al-yamin (servants), Allah says: “And
whoever among you has not within his power ampleness of means to marry free
believing women, then (he may marry) of those whom your right hands possess from
among your believing maidens; and Allah knows best your faith: you are sprung
the one from the other; so marry them with the permission of their masters and
give them their dowries justly.” (4:25)
The command in verse 4 of sura Nisa to the effect
that: “…as to those by whom you benefitted (from mut’ah), give them their
dowries as appointed….” was for mut’ah, or temporary marriage.
It could not be for permanent wedlock, for
otherwise, it would mean that in the same chapter the decree regarding
permanent wedlock has been repeated twice, which is against the rule, and if it
is for mut’ah, then it evidently is a permanent and separate decree. Second,
not only Shi’as but all Muslims agree that mut’ah was practiced during the
early days of Islam. The distinguished companions practiced it in the time of
the Holy Prophet. If this verse refers to permanent wedlock then which is the
verse for mut’ah? Evidently this is the verse regarding mut’ah, which your own
commentators have accepted.
There is no verse in the Holy Qur’an which
abrogates this command.
Ahlul
Sunna regarding lawfulness of mut’ah
It is reported in Sahih of Bukhari and the Musnad
of Imam Ibn Hanbal from Abu Raja on the authority of Imran Ibn Hasin that “…the
verse of mut’ah was revealed in the Book of Allah. So we acted in accordance
with it during the time of the Holy Prophet. No verse was revealed to make it
unlawful, nor did the Holy Prophet ever prohibit it.” One man decided to change
this law. Bukhari says that the man was ‘Umar.
Muslim in his Sahih, part I, in the chapter of
Nikatu’l-Mut’ah, says “Hasan Halwa’i reported to us that he was told by
Abdu’r-Razzaq, who was informed by Ibn Jarih, who was told by ‘Ata that Jabir
Ibn Abdullah Ansari came to Mecca for the Umra and they went to him at his residence.
People asked him many questions. When they came to the question of mut’ah he
said, ‘Yes, we used to practice mut’ah during the time of the Holy Prophet and
during the caliphate of Abu Bakr and ‘Umar.’”
Also in the same book in part I, in the chapter
of al-Mut’ah Bi’l-Hajj wa’l-Umra, it is narrated on the authority of Abu Nazara
that he said: “I was in the company of Jabir Ibn Abdullah Ansari when a man
came and said: “There is a difference of opinion between Ibn Abbas and Ibn
Zubair concerning the two mut’as, Mut’atu’n-Nisa and Mut’atu’l-Hajj.’
Then Jabir said, ‘We have performed both of these
during the time of the Holy Prophet. Thereafter, when ‘Umar forbade it, we
could not do it.’”
Imam Ahmad Ibn Hanbal in his Musnad, part I,
p.25, narrates Abu Nazara’s report in another way. Also both narrate another
report from Jabir that he said: “In the days of the Holy Prophet and Abu Bakr,
we used to practice mut’ah for the consideration of a handful of dates and
flour until ‘Umar forbade it in the case of Amr Ibn Harith.” Hamidi, in his
Jam’ al-Bainu’s-Sahihain, narrates from Abdullah Ibn Abbas that he said: “We
used to practice mut’ah during the time of the Holy Prophet.
When ‘Umar
was caliph, he said that ‘Allah Almighty made lawful whatever He liked for His
Holy Prophet. Now he is dead, and the Qur’an takes his place. So when you begin
the Hajj or the Umra, you should complete them as Allah has ordered you. You
should repent of and abstain from mut’ah. Bring him who has practiced mut’ah to
me so that I may stone him.’”
There are
many such reports in your own reliable books showing that mut’ah was
permissible during the days of the Holy Prophet.
The companions practiced it until ‘Umar made it
unlawful. Besides these reports, some of the companions, like Ubayy Ibn Ka’b,
Ibn Abbas, Abdullah Ibn Mas’ud, Sa’id Ibn Jabir and Sa’d have recited the verse
of mut’ah in this way, “And as such of them you had mut’ah with until such time
as was fixed.”
Jarullah Zamakhshari reports in his Kashshaf from
Ibn Abbas and also Muhammad Ibn Jarir Tabari in his Tafsir al-Kabir and Imam
Fakhru’d-din Razi in his Tafsir al-Mafatihu’l-Ghaib, vol.III, writing about
this Holy verse and Imam Nuwi in his Sharh al-Muslim, chapter I,
Nikatu’l-Mut’ah report from Nazari that Qazi Ayaz stated that “Abdullah Ibn
Mas’ud, the writer of wahi (i.e., recorder of revelations), used to recite this
verse in the same way, that is, ‘until such time as has been fixed.’” Imam
Fakhru’d-din Razi, after quoting the statement of Ubayy Ibn Ka’b and Ibn Abbas,
said: “The community did not reject their recitation of the verse in this way,
so what we have said has been accepted through consensus.” Again on the next
page he argues in this way: “This reading evidently proves that mut’ah had the
sanction of religion. We have no difference of opinion that mut’ah was
permitted in the time of the Holy Prophet.” Command permitting mut’ah was not
repealed.
Sunni Sheikh: Can you prove that it was
lawful during the days of the Holy Prophet but was not repealed later?
Shia Cleric: There is plenty of proof that it was
not annulled. The most convincing argument is that mut’ah had been permitted
from the time of the Holy Prophet until the middle of the caliphate of ‘Umar.
Caliph ‘Umar’s own statement has been generally
reported by your ulama’. They have written that he went to the pulpit and said,
“In the time of the Prophet two mut’ahs
were permitted. I make both of them unlawful, and if any one does it, I will
punish him.”
Sunni
Sheikh: What you say is correct, but my point is that there are many
orders, which were current earlier in the time of the Holy Prophet but were
repealed later. Mut’ah was also permitted in the beginning, but later it was
forbidden.
Shia
Cleric: Since the basis and foundation of religion is the Holy Qur’an, if
any ordinance is present in the Holy Qur’an and is abrogated, its abrogation
must also be present in it. Now please let me know where in the Holy Qur’an
this order has been repealed.
Sunni
Sheikh: In sura 23, Mu’minin (The Believers), verse 6 repeals this order.
It says “Except before their mates or those whom their right hands possess, for
surely they are not blameworthy.” (22:6) This verse lays down two conditions
for conjugal relations: marriage or intercourse with slaves. So this verse
proves that the ordinance of mut’ah has been repealed.
Shia
Cleric: This verse does not in any way prove that mut’ah was repealed; it
confirms it. The woman united by mut’ah
is the real wife of the man. Had she not been his real wife, Allah would not
have ordered her mehr (dowry) to be paid. Moreover, the sura of The Believers
was revealed while the Prophet was in Mecca, the sura of Women while he was in
Medina. Obviously the Meccan chapters preceded the Medinan chapter. Can verse A
abrogate verse B, if verse A came before B?
Distinguished companions and Imam Malik insist
that the ordinance of mut’ah was not abrogated Abdullah Ibn Abbas, Abdullah Ibn
Mas’ud, Jabir Ibn Abdullah Ansari, Salama Ibn Akwa’, Abu’dh-Dharr Ghifari,
Subra Ibn Ma’bad, Akwa’ Ibn Abdullah Al-Aslami and Imran Ibn Hasin have stated
that the ordinance of mut’ah was not abrogated.
Moreover, your eminent ulama’ have also held that
it was not abrogated.
For instance, Jarullah Zamakhshari, in his Tafsir
al-Kashshaf regarding Abdullah Ibn Abbas’s statement that the verse of mut’ah
was one of the clear ordinances of the Holy Qur’an, says that this verse was
not repealed. Imam Malik Ibn Anas also said that the permissibility of mut’ah
had not been repealed. Mulla Sa’idu’d-din Taftazani in Sharh al-Maqasid, Burhanu’d-din
Hanafi in his Hidaya, Ibn Hajar Asqalani in his Fathu’l-Bari and others also
have reported the statement and verdict of Malik who says: “Mut’ah is lawful.
It is permitted by religion. Its lawfulness, as confirmed by Ibn Abbas, is
quite well known and most of his companions from Yeman and Mecca have practiced
it.
At another place he says: “Mut’ah is lawful since
it has been permitted and its lawfulness and permissibility hold good unless it
is repealed.” You will notice that until Malik’s death there was no evidence
that the ordinance of mut’ah had been annulled. Moreover, your prominent
commentators, like Zamakhshari, Baghawi, and Imam Tha’labi have adhered to the
position of Ibn Abbas and other distinguished companions and have believed in
the lawfulness of mut’ah. All conditions of wedlock are fulfilled by mut’ah
Sunni Sheikh: Since there are no provisions for a woman united by mut’ah, such
as inheritance, divorce, after divorce (waiting period) and maintenance, as are
necessary for a wife, she cannot be a real wife. Shia Cleric: A woman joined
with a man through mut’ah is protected by all the provisions of any wife except
those which have been reasonably excluded.
Mut’ah is a kind of nika (marriage), which
entitles a woman to wifehood. Of course for the convenience of the community
and to save them from lawlessness, some of its conditions and formalities have
been waived.
As for its conditions, first, it is not proved
that inheritance is a necessary condition of marriage. Many women, in spite of
being wives, do not receive an inheritance from their husbands. For example,
disobedient wives or those who murder are deprived of inheritance.
Second, it is not definitely established whether
a woman united by mut’ah is deprived of her right of inheritance. The jurists
differ in their opinions about it, and such differences exist among you also.
Third, the Imamiyya ulama’ unanimously hold the
view that a woman united by mut’ah must also observe ‘idda (waiting period
before re-marriage). Its shortest period has been fixed as 45 days. If the
husband dies, she should observe the usual ‘idda of four months and ten days,
whether she had had sexual intercourse with her husband or not, or whether she
has passed the age of menstruation or not.
Fourth, the right of maintenance is not a
necessary condition attached to marriage. There are a number of wives who are
not entitled to maintenance, such as those who are disobedient or who murder
their husbands.
Fifth, the expiration of the agreed upon period
is itself her divorce. Similarly, with the consent of her husband, she may be
divorced before the expiration date. Therefore none of the conditions that you
have mentioned has any force.
A renowned Shi’as scholar, Allama Jamalu’d-Din
Hilli (Hasan Ibn Yusuf Ibn ‘Ali Ibn Mutahhar), has given in detail the same
arguments in reply to the views of your prominent ulama’. I have referred to
them briefly. Anyone who wants to study it in detail may consult Allama Hilli’s
Mabahithat al-Sunniyya wa Ma’rifat al-Nussairiyya.
Was Qur’anic
Command for mut’ah abrogated by the Holy Prophet?
Sunni
Sheikh: Besides the Holy verse there are also a large number of hadith
which say that the ordinance concerning mut’ah had been abrogated during the
time of the Holy Prophet.
Shia
Cleric: Kindly let us know about that order of abrogation.
Sunni
Sheikh: It has been narrated with some variations. Some reporters say that
it was decreed on the day of the conquest of Khaibar, some say it happened on
the day of conquest of Mecca, some reports say that it was on the occasion of
the Last Pilgrimage, and some say that it was on the day of Tabuk. Others,
however, are of the opinion that the order of nullity was revealed on the
occasion of Umratu’l-Qaza (The Farewell Pilgrimage).
Shia
Cleric: The contradictory reports clearly prove that there was no such
order of abrogation. And how can those reports be relied upon when, on the
contrary, there are many hadith reported in Sahih al-Sitta, Jam’ al-Bainu’s-Sahihain,
Jam’ al-Bainu’s-Sahih al-Sitta, Musnad, etc, from distinguished companions
which prove that this verse was not abrogated until the caliphate of ‘Umar.
The most compelling argument that your own ulama’
have themselves cited is the statement of Caliph ‘Umar, who said: “I make both
those two mut’as which were current in the days of the Holy Prophet, unlawful.”
Had there been any verse, or order of the Holy
Prophet, the caliph would have said: “According to the instructions of the Holy
Prophet, which is supported by the Qur’anic verse, if any one committed the
unlawful act in violation of the abrogated ordinance, I will punish him.”
Such a statement would have been more impressive
for the people. But he merely said: “Two mut’as were permitted in the time of
the Holy Prophet, I make them unlawful.” If, however, your claim is correct and
the verse of mut’ah was abrogated, why didn’t the pupils of the Holy Prophet,
like Abdullah Ibn Abbas, Imran Ibn Hashim and other companions act upon it?
Your own great traditionists and historians,
including Bukhari and Muslim, have recorded this fact. All these things clearly
prove that from the time of the Holy Prophet to the caliphate of ‘Umar the
companions followed this ordinance.
Could
caliph ‘Umar abrogate mut’ah?
So it is clear that mut’ah shall continue to be
lawful forever. Abu Isa Muhammad Ibn Sawratu’t-Tirmidhi in his Sunan, which is
regarded as one of the six Sahih by you, Imam Ahmad Ibn Hanbal in his Musnad,
PART II, p.95, and Ibn Athir in his Jam’u’l-Usul have reported that a Syrian man asked Abdullah Ibn ‘Umar
Ibn Khattab what he considered about Mut’ah al-Nisa. He said: “Of course, it is
lawful.” The man said again, “But your father, the caliph, forbade the people
to do it.” He said, “It was ordered by the Holy Prophet; so if it has been
prohibited by my father that order cannot supersede the order of the Holy
Prophet. I am the follower of the Holy Prophet’s order.”
For the reports which have been narrated,
perhaps people later forged hadith in order to support Caliph ‘Umar’s
statement. The matter is too clear to call for any further elucidation. The
fact is that you have no real evidence for the unlawfulness of mut’ah except
the statement of Caliph ‘Umar.
Sunni
Sheikh: Caliph ‘Umar’s statement in itself is the strongest evidence for
Muslims, and they must follow it. If he had not heard it from the Holy Prophet,
he would not have said that.
Shia
Cleric: Is Caliph ‘Umar’s statement so compelling that Muslims must follow
it? I have not seen a single hadith in your books, in which the Holy Prophet
said that ‘Umar Ibn Khattab’s statement was a confirmed source or that Muslims
should follow it. On the other hand your books are filled with reliable hadith
saying that we should follow the descendants of the Holy Prophet, particularly
‘Ali.
The Ahlul
Bayt of the Holy Prophet have said that the ordinance of mut’ah was not
abrogated. You said that had Caliph ‘Umar not heard about the order of
cancellation from the Holy Prophet, he would not have said what he did. But
this is easily disproved.
First, if
Caliph ‘Umar had heard of the cancellation of the order of mut’ah from the Holy
Prophet, he should have spoken about it during the life of the Holy Prophet up
to the period of his own caliphate. This
would have been especially important since he saw prominent companions had been
practicing it, and it was his duty to tell the people that the practice of
mut’ah had been annulled. Why did he
not perform the duty of prevention of evil?
Second,
the practice, which had been current among the community by order of the Holy
Prophet, could only be nullified by the Holy Prophet. There should have been no
delay in this case. Does it stand to reason that if an order for the Community
had been circulated and was later abrogated, would the Holy Prophet have spoken
about it to no one except ‘Umar? And would it have made sense that ‘Umar would
not have told anybody about it until late in his own caliphate? During all this
period when the community continued to follow this (so-called) abrogated order,
did no responsibility lie with ‘Umar?
You say that the prohibition of “nullified and
irreligious” practice could not be made known to others and therefore the
community continued to follow it. Can anybody else except the Holy Prophet be
held responsible for not proclaiming the abrogation of an order, having told
only ‘Umar of it? Is it not infidelity to say that the Holy Prophet neglected
to perform his mission and that the community because of its ignorance,
continued acting upon an abrogated order for a long time?
Third, if
the order of mut’ah had been annulled during the time of the Holy Prophet and
‘Umar had heard of this from the Holy Prophet, ‘Umar could have said when he
prohibited it that he had himself heard the Holy Prophet say that the practice
of mut’ah had been banned.
Obviously, if he had referred to the Holy
Prophet’s statement, the community would have been much impressed by it. But he
said, “During the time of the Holy Prophet, two mut’as were permitted, but I
make them unlawful. Now I will stone those who do it.” Is it not the duty of
the Holy Prophet to declare things lawful or unlawful? Or, can it be the right
of a caliph who has been appointed by the people? I don’t understand on what
basis ‘
Umar
declared unlawful what Allah made lawful. How strange it is that the Holy
Prophet never said that he made a certain thing lawful or unlawful. Whenever he
announced any order, he said that Allah had ordered him to convey it to the
people. How bold ‘Umar is when he says: “Two mut’as were permitted in the time
of the Holy Prophet. I make both of them unlawful. I will punish those who
commit those acts.” Command of Allah or of the Holy Prophet may not be
abrogated by a caliph
Sunni
Sheikh: Certainly you are aware that some of our scholars of high learning
believe that since the Holy Prophet was a mujtahid (authority) in the matter of
religious orders, another mujtahid, by virtue of his own findings, may set
aside the former order. It was on this basis that ‘Umar said, “I make those two
things unlawful.”
Shia
Cleric: In an attempt to set right one wrong, you perpetrate many others. Does ijtihad have any significance in
contradicting an injunction of the Holy Qur’an? Is not your statement quite
absurd and opposed to the Qur’anic verses?
Allah Almighty says in the sura of Jonah: “Say: It is not proper for me that I should
change it myself. I follow naught but what is revealed to me.” (10:15) If it is
true that the Holy Prophet could not make any changes in religious order unless
he was ordered by Allah to do so, how could ‘Umar, who had no knowledge of
revelation, have the authority to make unlawful what Allah had made lawful?
In the sura of Najm (The Star) Allah says: “Nor
does he speak out of caprice. It is naught but revelation that is revealed.”
(53:3-4) In the sura of Ahqaf (The Sand Dunes), Allah says: “Say: I am not the
first of the apostles, and I do not know what will be done with me or with you.
I do not follow anything but what has been revealed to me.” (46:9) Obedience to
the Holy Prophet is obligatory.
No one, ‘Umar or anyone else, has the right to
interfere with divine orders and make unlawful what Allah made lawful.
Expediency
not grounds for abrogation
Sunni
Sheikh: ‘Umar definitely thought it expedient and considered it in the best
interest of the people to abrogate that order. We find these days that some
people take a woman in mut’ah for the sake of pleasure for an hour, a month, or
a year. Later, regardless of whether she is pregnant or not, they leave her.
Shia
Cleric: This is ridiculous! What
does the lawfulness of this Islamic command have to do with people’s indulgence
in illicit sexual relations? If we followed your reasoning, perhaps permanent
wedlock should be made unlawful. After all, people marry noble girls for their
money or their beauty and later leave them, without giving them any financial
support. Since some people do this, do you think that permanent wedlock should
be abrogated? No. We should encourage people to be honest and give them proper
religious instruction. If a righteous man does not find in himself the capacity
to shoulder the responsibility of having a permanent wife, and if he wishes to
avoid an unlawful action, he would, in compliance with the code of religion,
wish to take a woman in mut’ah or temporary wedlock. Accordingly, he would
like to know the conditions of mut’ah because he knows that for every order
there are certain conditions. At the time of mutual agreement, he would provide
the amount of mehr (dower) for the woman which would be sufficient for her
maintenance during her ‘idda, which is 45 days, after the term of the period of
mut’ah.
Second, after the separation, he would look after
the woman during the entire period of ‘idda. If she were pregnant, he would
take proper care of the mother so that he might take his child after it is
born. If some people fail to honor these conditions, it does not follow that a
valid order of lawfulness has been abrogated.
The welfare of the community was better
understood by Allah and the Holy Prophet than by ‘Umar. And they did not
prohibit mut’ah. If they didn’t prohibit it, no caliph or imam, or any other
man, even one divinely commissioned, can of his own accord make unlawful what
Allah has made lawful. So your claim, that it was in the best interest of the
community that people give up mut’ah, is untenable.
Mut’ah was not the cause of the spread of
lawlessness; rather it was the banning of it which spread lewdness. Those young
men and women, who cannot afford to join in permanent wedlock if they cannot
control and restrain their sexual appetite, will indulge in illicit sex. And of
course widespread adultery and fornication destroy the moral character of
entire nations.
Imam Tha’labi and Tabari in their Tafsir and Imam
Ahmad Ibn Hanbal in his Musnad, writing in connection with the verse of mut’ah,
narrate from Amiru’l-Mu’minin ‘Ali that he said: “If ‘Umar had not put a restraint on mut’ah, no one, except an
unfortunate man, would have committed fornication.”
Also Ibn Jarih and Amr Ibn Dinar report from
Abdullah Ibn Abbas who said: “Mut’ah was really a mercy of Allah, which He gave
to the community of Muhammad. If ‘Umar had not banned it, no one except an
unlucky man would have committed adultery.”
So according
to the views of the companions of the Holy Prophet, the cause of the prevalence
of adultery was the prohibition of mut’ah, rather than the practice of it. In
fact all the divine commands regarding lawful and unlawful acts which have been
transmitted to the community through the Holy Prophet were intended for the
welfare of the people. They continue to benefit them today.
